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righteousness (2)

No More Conscience of Sins

Posted by Ken & Sue Brown on March 11, 2009 at 1:43am
Nearly 20 years ago, not long after leaving TWI, I came across a section of Scripture that astounded me. I was stunned because the section seemed to contradict something I had long held to be an important and fundamental doctrine. I must have read this section before, but apparently I had never seriously considered what it was saying.The section to which I refer is in Hebrews.Hebrews 10:1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.The Israelites could get forgiven of their sins, but they had to keep coming back to the temple year by year to get forgiven again. If they had had a sacrifice that made them perfect (telios), the Children of Israel would not have needed to offer any more sacrifices; and having been “purged” (cleansed), they should therefore have had no more conscience of sins. The record goes on to say that we DO have such a sacrifice, a one-time sacrifice that perfects us forever.12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.The obvious conclusion is that we should have no more conscience of sins. How can this be? Israel had to be reminded of their sins once a year and God wanted to deliver them from that. I was remembering my sins and confessing my broken fellowship multiple times every day! I would gladly have traded that for only needing to be reminded of my sins once a year. And yet if I was correct about what I understood 1 John 1:9 to be saying, what I was doing was needful.1 John 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.What Hebrews seems to clearly say contradicts what 1 John seems to clearly say. If I have to remember my sins to confess them, asking God for his forgiveness, thus obtaining His forgiveness and getting cleansed of my unrighteousness, I cannot have “no more conscience of sins.” Either my understanding of Hebrews was incorrect, or my understanding of 1 John was incorrect.In 1972 at the HQ Advanced Class, I talked to Dr. Wierwille about the practical application of 1 John 1:9. We were under the apple trees. I said:“Sir, I know there are sins of omission as well as sins of commission. I may have missed the revelation or not thought something through. Since this is true, I do not necessarily always know when I may have just sinned. Since all sin is broken fellowship, and since the only way to repair my broken fellowship and be forgiven and cleansed of my unrighteousness, is to confess my sins, and I never know when I may have just sinned, I confess my broken fellowship before the father whenever it comes to my mind. It might be 5 or 10 or 20 times a day. Is this what you do?”He looked startled. Then he leaned back in his lawn chair and stared toward the sky for a moment or two with his hands clasped behind his head. Finally he looked at me and said, “Oh no son. You’ve got to get out of your sin consciousness. I go to bed at night and I thank God for forgiving me for sinning all day long, and other than that, I just never think about it.” I appreciated his practical advice, but I couldn’t do it. I didn’t have the doctrine to back it up. From what I was taught and believed, what I was doing was the logical response.It took a quest lasting many years before I understood the correct doctrine from God’s Word that freed me from sin consciousness. Reading Hebrews chapter 10 that morning was a major stepping-stone in the right direction.In PFAL we learned a principle. If there are 50 verses that apparently say one thing, and one verse that apparently says something else, believe the 50 and take a second look at the one to see if you understand it correctly. What do other Scriptures have to say about forgiveness, about righteousness before God, about our fellowship with Him, about confession of sins, etc?Let’s take a few examples. Ephesians says we have already been forgiven.Ephesians 1:7In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;Ephesians 4:32And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you.These verses say we already have the forgiveness of sins and that we have already been forgiven. They do not say we have been forgiven for some sins but still must do something to gain God’s forgiveness for others. I used to read that into these verses because of what I thought 1 John was saying, but they don’t say that. They just say we have the forgiveness of sins and have been forgiven.Colossians states the same truth.Colossians 1:14In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:Colossians 2: 13And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;Colossians 3:13Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel against any: even as Christ forgave you, so also do ye.Romans says we are dead to sin and freed from it.Romans 6:2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.1 Peter tells us the same.1 Peter 2:24Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.How can it be said that we are dead to sin(s) and freed from it if God is holding certain of my sins (the ones I haven’t confessed yet) against me; these sins causing a separation between us such that God will not answer my prayers. That doesn’t sound like dead to sin(s) to me. (Incidentally, the words “sin” and “sins” are not used in God’s Word to distinguish between the state of sin and the acts.)1 John seems to say I must do something to get cleansed of my unrighteousness. The Church Epistles say I don’t have any unrighteousness. They say I have been made the righteousness of God in him (2 Corinthians 5:21). Righteousness basically just means rightness. Our righteousness is our rightness before God. The Church Epistles say I have that rightness before God as a gift (Romans 5:17) because Jesus Christ paid for my sins.If it were true that any given sin would cause you to be “out of fellowship” with the Father, causing you to be in a state where He does not hear, much less answer, your prayers, and that the only way to get out of this condition is to confess your sins, doesn’t it seem like that would be important to know? What else could be any more crucial for the born-again believer to know? Why is it then that confession of sins is not discussed in Romans, the foundational book of doctrine? Why is it that confession of sins is never once so much as alluded to in all the seven Church Epistles? Confessing your sin to God is never mentioned ANYWHERE in God’s Word relative to the grace administration other than 1 John 1:9!This whole doctrine of “broken fellowship” and the need to confess your sins to get back “in fellowship” and explaining away clear verses that say we have been forgiven, made free from sin, and made righteous is all based solely on one verse outside the Church Epistles. I had previously, without ever really considering what I was doing, redefined scores of clear verses “in light of” 1 John 1:9. When I read, for example, Ephesians 4:32, “… even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you,” I would automatically think “yes, for the sins I committed before being born again but not for the ones after until I confess.” But this verse does not say that.Acts 13:39 has a piece of interesting information.Acts 13:38 Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:39 And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.“Justified from all things, from which you could not be justified by the law of Moses.” What was it that people could not be justified from under the law of Moses that they can justified from by Jesus Christ? David was under the law, and God forgave him for murdering Uriah. There are many examples of heinous acts that God forgave people of in the Old Testament under the law. What exactly was it people could not be justified from under the law of Moses but can be justified from by Jesus Christ? The verse in Acts tells us. It is all things. The children of Israel could be forgiven of any one thing or a number of things, but as Hebrews shows, they did not have a one- time sacrifice that justified them from all things. If we today still have to piece meal getting forgiveness from God, confessing one sin at a time to gain God’s forgiveness, we have nothing better regarding forgiveness than did the children of Israel.Let’s think about this from a practical point of view for a moment. It is simply not possible to confess all your sins. The verse does not say to acknowledge your state of broken fellowship; it says (or seems to say) that being cleansed of your unrighteousness is dependent on confessing your sins. Would you agree that willfully, knowingly violating the Word of God is sin? What about the verse that says to lead every thought captive to Christ? Is there anyone who honestly believes that it is possible to identify and confess every bad thought? What about the guy who goes out in “left field” for 20 years, and then has a change of heart? He decides to come back to God and follow Him and love Him. Unfortunately, he will always have unrighteousness before God (thus being “out of fellowship”) no matter what he does, because there is no way he is going to be able to remember all his sins for the past 20 years to confess them and get forgiven. 1 John 1:9 just cannot be telling born-again believers that they must confess individual sins to gain God’s forgiveness and get cleansed of their unrighteousness. That would be an absolutely unattainable standard for righteousness.For a long time, I didn’t know what the story was with 1 John. I just knew that what I had believed it was saying was contradictory to many other Scriptures. For years I chose to believe the many clear records from the Church Epistles and other places regarding righteousness and forgiveness and hold 1 John 1:9 in abeyance, having no explanation. Whether I had an explanation for 1 John or not, it was life changing to finally begin to believe the Church Epistles: that I am righteous before the Father, not just righteous in one way but not another; that I am dead to sin(s) and freed from it; and that I have been forgiven all trespasses, not just some of them. (Also, not needing to spend half my prayer life apologizing and asking for forgiveness freed up a lot of time and mental energy.)To understand what 1 John 1 is talking about, we must first understand what “fellowship” means as it is used in God’s Word. We must determine to whom the book is addressed. We must learn the meanings of the idioms: “walk in light” and “walk in darkness.” We must also examine what the sin is that is referred to, among other matters. These will be the subjects of future articles.
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"Be ye reconciled to God" and Other Contradictions

Posted by Ken & Sue Brown on August 13, 2008 at 11:54am
[Author’s note: It is my intent to post little pieces of Biblical research from time to time in the hope that there will be readers who will be blessed by them. These postings may or may not be of any particular doctrinal significance. Some of them will be, but some will not. They will be just nice things to know. Hopefully, all will add to the readers’ knowledge of the Scriptures.]“Be ye reconciled to God” and Other Contradictionsby Ken Brown2 Corinthians 5:20Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God. [KJV, as are all other scriptures unless otherwise noted]This is a familiar verse, but have you ever considered the fundamental problem with how the KJV is translated? How could Paul be beseeching those he is addressing to be reconciled to God? 2 Corinthians is addressed to the Church, believers, the born-again ones.2 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and Timothy our brother, unto the church of God which is at Corinth, with all the saints which are in all Achaia:The context of 2 Corinthians 5:20 shows clearly that reconciliation is a past-tense reality for the believer.2 Corinthians 5:17 Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.Also, compare the following:Romans 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.10 For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.11 And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement [reconciliation].Colossians 1: 21 And you, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciledSo what’s the story? Scratch the italicized “you” in 2 Corinthians 5:20. Paul wasn’t reaching out to the Corinthian believers to be reconciled. He was simply quoting what his declaration was to the world as an ambassador for Christ. Some versions accurately reflect this. Darby and Young’s Literal Translation are both good renderings of 2 Corinthians 5:20.We are ambassadors therefore for Christ, God as it were beseeching by us, we entreat for Christ, Be reconciled to God. [Darby]in behalf of Christ, then, we are ambassadors, as if God were calling through us, we beseech, in behalf of Christ, 'Be ye reconciled to God;' [Young’s Literal Translation]Editors of some other versions, however, seem to have missed the point. Compare the following:We are therefore Christ's ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ's behalf: Be reconciled to God. [New International Version]Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God were making an appeal through us; we beg you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God. [New American Standard (1995)]So we are ambassadors for Christ, since God is making his appeal through us; we entreat you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God. [New Revised Standard (1989)]So we are the representatives of Christ, as if God was making a request to you through us: we make our request to you, in the name of Christ, be at peace with God. [Bible in Basic English]So we are ambassadors for Christ; it is as though God were urging you through us, and in the name of Christ we appeal to you to be reconciled to God. [New Jerusalem Bible]One has to wonder why the difference. I have no doubt that there were men working on each of these versions who were Greek scholars, intimately familiar with the intricacies of the language. Knowledge of Greek is a fine thing, but it is obviously not a guarantee for truth. It is not the great pinnacle of all requirements for accurate Biblical exegesis. The editors of the versions that missed the point on 2 Corinthians 5:20 were certainly capable of reading other related Scriptures such as the ones quoted above. How could they, therefore, translate this scripture in a manner repugnant to those scriptures? The Greek text could allow for their translations but did not require them.Apparently, when these men read these scriptures, they never changed their thinking accordingly. Otherwise, their translations of 2 Corinthians 5:20 would have immediately sent up a big red flag that said, “Whoa! That can’t be.” Why no red flag? Because the translations offered did not violate their belief system. When people read a scripture and choose to not genuinely believe it from the heart, changing whatever contrary belief they may have previously held, they open the door to violate yet other scriptures. They also close the door to further learning on the subject.If, for example, a person can read 1 Thessalonians 4:15-18 and simply set it aside because it doesn’t agree with his previously held belief that the “dead” are already alive in heaven, what chance does he have of accurately interpreting other scriptures on this subject? 1 Thessalonians could not be any more clear that the resurrection of the dead in Christ will occur at some point in the future when he returns to gather the Church. They will meet the Lord at the same time as those who are still alive at that moment. They haven’t already met Him.1 Thessalonians 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.There were plenty of scholars who lived before Dr. Wierwille (and he frankly declared that he was not a scholar), but who never put the Scriptures together as well as he did. Why? What was the difference? Yes, God taught him, but God did not single him out at random. There had to be a reason. Why was it that Dr. Wierwille could read the Scriptures and see the truth that the dead are dead until the resurrection, when thousands of theologians before him couldn’t see the clear scriptures on this topic? Did anyone ever teach this truth between the time of the Apostle Paul and Dr. Wierwille? I suppose someone must have, but are you aware of anyone doing so? This was pretty revolutionary. Imagine what it took on Dr. Wierwille’s part to reject his past teaching and the consensus of the entire so-called Christian world in favor of believing God’s Word on this topic. And what about the holy spirit field and other matters where his understanding of God’s Word was so revolutionary? Why was it that God was able to help him learn these things that had eluded other men for centuries? Could it be simply that God had found a man who was willing to believe and change?Let’s take another example. Ephesians 1 is very clear that God has already MADE us accepted.6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;Here is Young’s Literal Translation of these verses:6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, in which He did make us accepted in the beloved,7 in whom we have the redemption through his blood, the remission of the trespasses, according to the riches of His graceYet, when the editors of the King James Version translated 2 Corinthians 5:9, they had no problem rendering it in a contradictory manner:9 Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him.The Greek word translated “accepted” in Ephesians 1:6 is the verb form of “charis,” grace. Literally, the verse says God “graced” us. He bestowed grace upon us. Translating it as “accepted” was not demanded by the Greek word, but it works in this context, showing what the grace was that was extended to us. The Greek word translated “accepted” in 2 Corinthians 5:9 is “euarestos” which literally means “well pleasing,” as is reflected by Young’s Literal Translation:9 Wherefore also we are ambitious, whether at home or away from home, to be well pleasing to him,OK, so again, what was going through the minds of the King James Version editors that they gave a thumbs-up to translating these two verses in a self-contradictory manner? Did they just not notice? That seems unlikely, but even if so, there was a reason for not noticing, a reason for there being no immediate big red flag. Apparently these two contradictory readings did not violate their belief system. Apparently, when they read in Ephesians 1:6 that “he hath made us accepted” they still held open the possibility that this only applied to us in some sense, and that there could be some other sense in which we must work to be accepted. The problem is that the verse in Ephesians does not say that. It just says He made us accepted. So are we accepted or not?A child in a loving family is always and will always be accepted of his parents. It is not likely, however, that he will always be well pleasing to them. Every child has his incorrigible moments that displease his parents, but no loving parent rejects his kid because of it. There is a difference between being accepted and being well pleasing. We work to be well pleasing, but God made us accepted in the beloved one, in Jesus Christ, in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.If a person believes that he can be accepted of God and at the same time not accepted of God, then he will look no further to find the answer to the apparent discrepancy. (Of course there is a word to describe the mental condition that holds two contradictory beliefs at the same time. Secularists call it “insanity.” Theologians call it whatever they have to in order to maintain their belief system.)But what about redemption? Ephesians 1:7 says we HAVE redemption. Are there not other scriptures that say we have not yet been redeemed? No. Ephesians 4:30 does indeed refer to a coming day of redemption.Ephesians 4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.But what is it that gets redeemed at that day? It can’t be you. Ephesians 1:7 says we already have redemption (as does Romans 3:24, 1 Corinthians 1:30 and Colossians 1:14). Romans 8:22 & 23 make it clear that what has yet to be redeemed is your body (and all the rest of “creation”), not you.Romans 8: 22 For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now.23 And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body.Don’t confuse you with your body. Your body is not you. Your body is just where you live. I know it is tempting to look at the pictures on this Way Corps site and think that certain of us have aged significantly since you last saw us. Don’t give in to the temptation. It isn’t true. Our bodies have aged, but our bodies are not us. We haven’t aged a bit.OK, fine for reconciled, accepted, and redeemed, but Ephesians 1:7 also says we have the forgiveness of sins. Isn’t there a sense in which this is true but also a sense in which it is not true? The verse doesn’t say that, does it? It doesn’t say we have forgiveness of sins in one way but not in another. Nor does it say we have been forgiven of some sins but not others. It just says we HAVE the forgiveness of sins. We can believe this or not (trust me, it is better to believe it), but it isn’t sane to think that it is true AND that it is not true. The same truth is given in Ephesians 4:32: And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you.It does not say you have been forgiven of some things but not others. It just says HATH FORGIVEN you. Compare the following records from Colossians.Colossians 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:2:13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you ALL [emphasis mine] trespasses;3:13 Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel against any: even as Christ forgave you, so also do ye.There is nothing in the seven Church Epistles that in any way comes close to contradicting these verses. Quite the contrary, there are many more verses which corroborate them. We were dead IN our sins but now are dead TO them. That is what the Epistles say. There is not a single verse in all the Church Epistles that so much as alludes to the believer needing to do or say anything to gain God’s forgiveness. The Epistles say we already have it. I can think of two verses outside the Church Epistles that would seem to say otherwise, but there must be (and there is) an answer to the apparent contradiction. Unfortunately, those who are willing to hold two contradictory views at the same time will not even recognize that there is a problem, let alone seek a solution.Avoidance of self-contradiction doesn’t take a scholar, just people who are willing to believe the Scriptures exactly as they are written. Are we already reconciled to God or do we still need to be called unto reconciliation? You can’t have it both ways, as the editors of the King James Version (and others) seemed willing to accept. Have we been made accepted by God or do we still need to do something to become accepted? Both can’t be true. Have we been redeemed or not? Do we have the forgiveness of sins or do we still need to do something to obtain God’s forgiveness? Is the old man dead or do we still have to deal with him? Which is it? It can’t be both. Have we been made the righteousness of God in him (in Jesus Christ) or do we still need to do something to get cleansed of our unrighteousness? Holding both views defies reason. The Trinitarian who believes that Jesus is a man and he is God while acknowledging the truth of the scripture that says God is not a man, has closed himself off from the land of reason and thus from further learning on the subject. Accurate Biblical understanding requires that we not choose a path repugnant to reason.Dr. Wierwille wasn’t the first to be willing to change his mind upon seeing truths in God’s Word, and he isn’t the last. He never claimed to know all of the truth. Will we continue to learn more? It will happen only when we have the courage to go to God’s Word and believe exactly what it says. I have nothing but respect for Dr. Wierwille. I believe his words when he said God spoke to him in an audible voice, and told him He would teach him His Word like it had not been known since the first century if he would teach it to others. Dr. Wierwille answered God’s call, but what about us? Are we exemplifying the same courage he had and the same drive and hunger for the truth?
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